Semester 2, Assessment 3:

1 A network administrator wants to assure that any password that permits access to the privileged EXEC mode is not shown in plain text in the configuration files. Which set of commands will accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

Router(config)# enable cisco secret

Router(config)# enable cisco

Router(config)# service password-encryption

Router(config)# enable secret cisco

Router(config)# encrypt-all cisco



2
Select the possible locations where the running-config file could be copied? (Choose three.)

all hosts

NVRAM

floppy disk

TFTP server

server that is not on the network



3 Router names are associated with IP addresses. What is the name of the table that is created by this association?

IP table

SAP table

ARP table

MAC table

HOST table

RARP table



4
Which commands display information about the IOS or configuration files stored in router memory? (Choose three.)

Router# show ram

Router# show flash

Router# show hosts

Router# show history

Router# show version

Router# show startup-config



5

The serial connection shown in the graphic is being configured. Which configuration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity with the Melbourne site? (Choose three.)

Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.0

Sydney(config-if)# interface s0

Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.224

Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000

Sydney(config-if)# show interface serial 0

Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown



6 What are the default settings for a serial interface? (Choose three.)

DTE

DCE

shutdown

no IP address

clock rate 56000

encapsulation ARPA



7 Which statements are true concerning login banners? (Choose two.)

They can be used to display dated information regarding system changes or maintenance.

They can be used to display warnings to unauthorized users.

They can be used to display welcome messages prior to login.

They can be seen only by system administrators.

They can provide confirmation of incoming IP addresses.



8 What will be the response from the router after the command, "router(config)# hostname portsmouth " is entered?

portsmouth#

portsmouth(config)#

invalid input detected

router(config-host)#

hostname = portsmouth
portsmouth#

? command not recognized
router(config)#



9 A telnet session can be established when using the IP address of a router but not the name of the router. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the problem?

an incorrect host table entry

an incorrect ARP table entry

an incorrect routing table entry

an incorrect protocol configured

an incorrect subnet mask



10 Select the correct sequence of commands that would configure "Engineering LAN" as the interface description on the FastEthernet interface 0.

Router# configure terminal
Router(config)# interface fa0
Router(config-if)# interface description Engineering LAN

Router# configure terminal
Router(config)# interface fa0
Router(config-if)# description Engineering LAN

Router# configure terminal
Router(config)# interface fa0
Router(config-if)# interface description Engineering LAN

Router# configure terminal
Router(config)# description Engineering LAN



11 Select the commands that will store the current configuration file to a network TFTP server? (Choose two.)

Router# copy run tftp

Router# copy tftp run

Router# copy running-config tftp

Router# copy tftp running-config

Router(config)# copy running-config tftp

Router(config)# copy tftp running-config



12 Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.)

VTY interface

console interface

Ethernet interface

secret EXEC mode

privileged EXEC mode

router configuration mode



13 What is the default state of the interfaces on a router?

up, line protocol down

down, line protocol down

adminstratively down, line protocol down

up, line protocol up



14 Which command turns on a router interface?

Router(config-if)# enable

Router(config-if)# no down

Router(config-if)# s0 active

Router(config-if)# interface up

Router(config-if)# no shutdown



15 What is the difference between using the resume command and striking the Enter key when reopening a suspended Telnet session? (Choose two.)

The Enter key requires a connection ID.

The resume command must be executed from the user EXEC mode.

The resume command requires a connection ID.

The resume command resumes the most recently suspended connection.

The Enter key resumes the most recently suspended connection.


16 How many Telnet sessions can take place simultaneously on a router running a standard edition of the IOS?

4

5

8

10



17 An administrator telnets from one router to a directly connected router. The telnet connection opens, but the administrator is unable to log on. Which of the following is a possible reason for this problem?

The console password is incorrect.

The interface connection is down.

The virtual terminal line passwords in the startup configuration are not configured.

The remote network of the router is not listed in the routing table.

The virtual terminal passwords are not defined in the running-configuration.



18 Select the interface descriptions that provide the most appropriate information. (Choose two.)

circuit number

host IP address

telnet password

number of hops between routers

purpose and location of the interface



19 Select the commands necessary to remove any existing configuration on a router. (Choose two.)

erase nvram

erase flash

erase startup-config

erase running-config

restart

reload



20 A LAN is to be added to an unused router Ethernet interface. What steps must be performed to configure this interface to allow connectivity to the hosts on this LAN? (Choose two.)

Enter the command no shutdown .

A password must be set on the interface.

The interface DCE clock rate must be set.

The interface must be configured for virtual terminal access.

The interface must be configured with an IP address and subnet mask.

The router must be put in setup mode in order for the interface to be configured.



21 How does creating standards for network consistency help ease router configuration? (Choose three.)

reduces complexity

offers unplanned downtime

limits unplanned downtime

increases bandwidth by regulating network performance

limits events that may impact network performance



22 Which command sequence will permit access to all five router virtual terminal lines with a password of cisco ?


Router(config-line)#config telnet
Router(config-line)# line vty 0 5
Router(config-line)# password cisco


Router(config)# line vty 0 4
Router(config)# password cisco


Router(config)# line vty 0 4
Router(config-line)# password cisco
Router(config-line)# login


Router(config-line)# config telnet
Router(config-line)# password cisco
Router(config-line)# sessions 0 4



23 Which of the following commands is used to configure an interface description?

Router(config)# description

Router(config-if)# description

Router(config)# interface description

Router(config-if)# interface description


Semester 2, Assessment 4:

1 Which command will display the IP address of a neighboring Cisco device?

Router# show cdp neighbors

Router# show cdp traffic

Router# show cdp interface

Router# show cdp neighbors detail



2
What command enables CDP on the interface of a router?

Router(config-if)# cdp enable

Router(config-if)# cdp run

Router(config-if)# cdp start

Router(config-if)# cdp config



3

Gold is able to ping both Silver and Bronze. A Telnet session between the Gold and Silver router is successful using the command Gold# telnet Silver . However, Gold is unable to establish a Telnet session with Bronze. Which of the following are possible causes for the failure? (Choose three.)

The command was issued from the privileged EXEC mode.

The vty access has not been set on the remote router.

The name was incorrectly entered.

The Telnet command was issued from the user EXEC mode.

The name of the remote router is missing from the host table.



4 Transmitting type length values (TLVs) inside advertisements is a process used by CDP to provide information about neighboring devices. What information is displayed by these TLVs? (Choose three.)

interface information of the connected device

all networks connected to the neighboring device

name of the connected device

routing protocol used on the neighboring device

holdtime for advertisements



5 What is the difference between using the resume command and striking the Enter key when reopening a suspended Telnet session? (Choose two.)

The Enter key requires a connection ID.

The resume command must be executed from the user EXEC mode.

The resume command requires a connection ID.

The resume command resumes the most recently suspended connection.

The Enter key resumes the most recently suspended connection.



6 What is the function of the proprietary Cisco Discovery Protocol?

to obtain information about neighboring devices

to manage SNMP messages

to send periodic routing updates

to enable default IOS settings



7

Which command will produce the output shown in the graphic?

show cdp

show cdp neighbors

show cdp neighbors detail

show cdp detail

show cdp traffic



8 To obtain CDP information from a Cisco router that is not directly connected to the administrator's console, what must happen?

The source router must send TLV blocks to the remote router.

The administrator can Telnet to a Cisco device that is connected to the remote router.

The administrator needs to issue the Router# show cdp all to view the entire network CDP advertisements.

The administrator must transmit TTL packets to the remote device and wait for a response.



9

Pings between Atlanta and Dallas are successful. If a hostname table or DNS connection is not available, which command will successfully establish a remote connection from Atlanta to Dallas via Telnet?

Atlanta> connect Dallas

Atlanta> 197.72.3.2

Atlanta# 206.157.85.1

Atlanta# telnet Dallas



10 For which of the following network layer protocols does CDP provide information? (Choose three.)

IP

RIP

SNMP

AppleTalk

IPX

IGRP



11

The network administrator wants to add the directly connected switch to the host table on the router. Which router command will display the necessary information to accomplish this task?

show cdp

show hosts

show cdp neighbors

show interface ethernet 0

show cdp neighbors detail



12 A WAN administrator is consoled into a router and needs to identify what other Cisco devices are in the network. Which method can be used by the administrator to find the IP address of a switch that is connected to a router one hop away?

Issue the command Router# show cdp neighbors detail .

Issue the command Router# show ip route .

Issue the command Router# show cdp neighbors .

Telnet to the remote router and issue the command Router# show running-configuration .

Telnet to the remote router and issue the command Router# show cdp neighbors detail .

Telnet to the remote router and issue the command Router# show cdp neighbors .



13

The traceroute command was used to trace the path between routers A and D. What would an output display of three asterisks (***) indicate?

The command was issued from the wrong prompt.

Each datagram was successfully sent.

One of the routers is unreachable.

There are three hops between source and destination.



14 An administrator is attempting to enable CDP on the interface of a Cisco router. After issuing the command Router(config-if)# cdp enable , the administrator notices that the interface is still not processing CDP. What might be the problem?

The CDP enable command must be issued from the global mode prompt.

The administrator needed to issue the command Router(config-if)# cdp run .

CDP has not been configured globally.

The administrator did not manually enter CDP neighbors into the CDP table.



15 Why would an administrator use the Telnet application when troubleshooting a network? (Choose three.)

It can be used to verify the operation of application layer software between the source and destination.

Telnet can use the ICMP protocol to verify a hardware connection and network layer address.

It is the most complete testing mechanism available.

Remote networks may be accessed via a Telnet session for troubleshooting.

Time to Live values are used by Telnet to identify a failure of device between source and destination.


16 Which of the following describes the ping command? (Choose two.)

uses Time to Live values

can be used to verify application layer software

uses the ICMP protocol to verify reachability

considered to be a very basic testing mechanism

considered to be the most complete testing mechanism available



17 An administrator can successfully ping between the Lubbock and Memphis routers. The command Lubbock# telnet Memphis is entered but the Memphis router cannot be reached. What are possible reasons for this failure? (Choose two.)

The Lubbock router does not have any entries in its host table.

Lubbock is not an entry in the host table of the Memphis router.

Access to a DNS server is not available.

The hostname command was not configured correctly on the Memphis router.

The hostname command was not configured correctly on the Lubbock router.



18 Which of the following are displayed by the Router# show cdp neighbors command? (Choose four.)

load

platform

reliability

holdtime

local interface

device id



19 What is the main use of Telnet?

transfer of data between end users

verification of simple connectivity

routing of data packets

remote connection to network devices



20

An administrator logged into Workstation 2 initiates Telnet sessions to both GAD and BHM from the workstation. What would happen if the Enter key was pressed at the privileged mode prompt after the session with BHM is suspended?

The GAD session would be resumed.

The BHM session would be resumed.

The GAD session would be terminated.

The BHM session would be terminated.



21 Which of the following describes CDP? (Choose two.)

resides at Layer 3 but functions at Layer 2

obtains information about neighboring devices

runs on all Cisco equipment and SNAP supported networks

media and protocol dependent



22

Which of the following is true regarding CDP and the graphic shown?

CDP running on Router D will gather information about routers A, B, C, and E.

By default, Router A will receive CDP advertisements from routers B and C.

If routers D and E are running different routing protocols, they will not exchange CDP information.

Router E can use CDP to identify the IOS running on Router B.



23 What is the purpose of the cdp timers command?

specifies the hold time to be sent in the CDP update packet

resets the traffic counters back to zero

specifies how often the Cisco IOS software sends CDP updates

deletes and resets the CDP table of information about neighbors

Assessment #10 - 23/24 95.8%

1
Which protocol can be used to load or retrieve Cisco IOS images to or from a router?
SNMP
x TFTP
UDP
TCP

2
Which of the following uses a connectionless protocol to transfer files?
FTP
x TFTP
HTTP
SNMP

3
Which protocol is used by e-mail servers to communicate with each other?
FTP
HTTP
TFTP
x SMTP
POP
SNMP

4
Which of the following protocols operate at the application layer of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
x FTP
TCP
UDP
x HTTP

5
Which SNMP component is responsible for using the majority of memory resources?
x network management system
agents
managed devices
secure ports

6
Which part of the URL, http://www.awsb.ca/teacher, shows the TCP protocol?
www
x http://
/teacher
awsb.ca

7
Which of the following are functions of TFTP? (Choose three.)
authenticate users
x read files
list files
x write files
encrypt files
x mail files

8
Which type of institution does the domain suffix .org represent?
government
education
network
x non-profit

9
Which protocols can be used to transfer files between systems? (Choose two)
x TFTP
DNS
SNMP
x FTP
DHCP

10
Which of the following protocols use TCP? (Choose two.)
x FTP
DHCP
TFTP
x HTTP
SYN

11
At which layer of the TCP/IP model does Telnet operate?
x application
presentation
session
transport
internet
network access

12
What does TCP use to begin the three-way handshaking process?
The destination host sends an ACK segment.
x The sending host sends a SYN segment.
The sending host sends a SYN and ACK segment.
The destination host sends a SYN segment.

13
Which of the following are valid domain name suffixes available on the Internet today? (Choose two.)
x .edu
x .us
.ax
.dep

14
Which TCP/IP layer is responsible for dialog control?
application
presentation
session
x transport

15
Which of the following services is used to translate a web address into an IP address?
x DNS
WINS
DHCP
Telnet
16
What are the features of the User Datagram Protocol (UDP). (Choose three.)
x no guaranteed delivery of datagrams
connection-oriented
provides reliable full-duplex data transmission
x reliability provided by the application layer
x connectionless
utilizes sliding windowing techniques

17
Which protocol is used by FTP to transfer files over the Internet?
x TCP
SMTP
UDP
SNMP

18
Which of the following uses a connection-oriented protocol to transfer files?
x FTP
TFTP
HTTP
SNMP
POP
SMTP

19
Which of the following is true when the TCP window size is 3 and data transmission has just begun?
The source must receive an "ACK 3" acknowledgement before sending more data.
The destination must receive an "ACK 3" acknowledgement before accepting more data.
x The source must receive an "ACK 4" acknowledgement before sending more data.
The destination must receive an "ACK 4" acknowledgement before accepting more data.

20
Which of the following can cause congestion when data transfer is in progress? (Choose two.)
Network servers use older versions of authentication software halting traffic entering the WAN.
Computers use too much RAM for other tasks.
x Faster computers generate traffic volume greater than the network is able to transfer.
x Large numbers of computers send data to the same location at the same time.
Datagrams are too large for the network to pass over the wire.

21
Which of the following SNMP components would a router be considered?
network management system
agents
x managed devices
secure ports

22
Which of the following are disadvantages of using SMTP for e-mail servers? (Choose two.)
x offers very little security
x no authentication
strong reliability
does not work well with email servers

23
Which part of the URL http://www.awsb.ca/teacher gives the name of the domain?
www
http://
/teacher
x awsb.ca

24
Which of the following are components of SNMP? (Choose three.)
x network management system
protocol analyzer
x managed devices
secure ports
x agents
protocol inspector

FINAL:

48/54 88.9% (91.6 weighted)

1
Which part of an IP address identifies a specific device on a network?
first two octets
third and fourth octets
network portion
x host portion
only the fourth octet

2
The accumulation of traffic from which of the following can cause a network condition called broadcast radiation? (Choose three.)
anonymous FTP servers
telnet sessions
x video over IP applications
NAS services
x ARP requests
x RIP updates

3
Convert the Hexadecimal number A2 into its Base 10 equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.
156
158
160
x 162
164
166

4
John has been hired as the network administrator of a local company and has decided to add more hubs to the company's existing network. Which of the following has been caused by John's inexperience?
x collision domain extended
an increased number of collision domains
increased network performance
increased bandwidth
extended bandwidth

5
Which of the following protocols are used for e-mail transfer between clients and servers? (Choose three.)
TFTP
SNMP
x POP3
x SMTP
x IMAP4
postoffice

6
Which term describes an ARP response by a router on behalf of a requesting host?
ARP
RARP
x Proxy ARP
Proxy RARP

7
Which of the following is a term associated with replacing hubs with switches to increase the number of collision domains?
encapsulation
latency
x segmentation
layered model
broadcast domain
extended

8
Which of the following services is used to translate a web address into an IP address?
x DNS
WINS
DHCP
Telnet

9
Which of the following are useable Class A IP addresses with a default subnet mask? (Choose three.)
127.0.39.1
x 111.9.28.30
x 123.1.2.132
128.50.38.2
x 105.1.34.1
0.23.92.3

10
Which combinations of charges will be repelled by electric force? (Choose two.)
neutral and neutral
neutral and positive
neutral and negative
x positive and positive
positive and negative
x negative and negative

11
Which part of the URL http://www.awsb.ca/teacher gives the name of the domain?
www
http://
/teacher
x awsb.ca

12
When a network administrator applies the subnet mask 255.255.255.248 to a Class A address, for any given subnet, how many IP addresses are available to be assigned to devices?
1022
510
254
126
30
x 6

13
If a network administrator needed to download files from a remote server, which protocols could the administrator use to remotely access those files? (Choose two.)
NFS
ASCII
x TFTP
IMAP
x FTP
UDP

14
Which of the following are Cisco proprietary routing protocols? (Choose two.)
RIPv2
x IGRP
OSPF
BGP
RIPv1
x EIGRP

15
For which of the following is Ethernet considered the standard? (Choose three.)
x inter-building connection
x mid-length voice
x video conferencing
vertical wiring
horizontal wiring
diagonal wiring
16
Which of the following are features of the Internet Protocol (IP)? (Choose two.)
x It is the most widely implemented global addressing scheme.
It allows two hosts to share a single address on a local area network.
x It is a hierarchical addressing scheme allowing addresses to be grouped.
It is only locally significant, used primarily on local area networks.

17
Which of the following will test the internal loopback of a node?
ping 10.10.10.1
ping 192.168.1.1
x ping 127.0.0.1
ping 223.223.223.223
ping 255.255.255.255

18
Why are internets necessary? (Choose three.)
x to overcome LAN scalability limitations
to overcome LAN speed limitations
x to overcome LAN distance limitations
to prevent collision and congestion conditions
x to network networks

19
Which protocol functions at the internet layer of the TCP/IP protocol suite?
File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP)
Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)
x Internet Protocol (IP)
User Datagram Protocol (UDP)
Simple Mail Transport Protocol (SMTP)

20


What type of wiring problem is depicted in this sample of a cable tester?
a fault
a short
x an open
a split
a good map

21
Which OSI layer defines the functions of a router?
physical
data link
x network
transport
session

22
What type of network cable is used between a terminal and a console port?
cross-over
straight-through
x rollover
patch cable

23
Which of the following are considered the best electrical conductors for use in data network communications? (Choose three.)
glass fibers
x copper
x gold
plastic
silicon
x silver

24
What is important to remember about the data link layer of the OSI model when considering Peer to Peer communication? (Choose three.)
It links data to the transport layer.
It encapsulates frames into packets.
x It provides a service to the network layer.
x It encapsulates the network layer information into a frame.
x Its header contains a physical address which is required to complete the data link functions.
It encodes the data link frame into a pattern of 1s and 0s (bits) for transmission on the medium.

25
The highest capacity Ethernet technologies should be implemented in which areas of a network? (Choose three.)
between workstation and backbone switch
between individual workstations
x between backbone switches
x between enterprise server and switch
x on aggregate access links

26
Which of the following are small, discrete components found within a personal computer? (Choose three.)
x transistor
x microprocessor
power supply
x capacitor
light emitting diode
hard disk

27
What are features of the TCP/IP Transport layer? (Choose two.)
path determination
handles representation, encoding and dialog control
x uses TCP and UDP protocols
packet switching
x reliability, flow control and error correction

28
Which of the following describes the use of Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)?
resolve routing loops
eliminate Split Horizon errors
limit collisions
x resolve switching loops

29
What device must be used between an AUI port of a networking device and the media to which it is being connected?
x a transducer
a transmitter
a transceiver
a transponder
a port replicator

30
Which type of institution does the domain suffix .org represent?
government
education
network
x non-profit
31
Which layer of the OSI model covers physical media?
x Layer 1
Layer 2
Layer 3
Layer 4
Layer 5
Layer 6

32
What is the recommended maximum number of workstations configured on a peer-to-peer network?
25
15
x 10
5
2

33
Which OSI layer encapsulates data into packets?
session
transport
x network
data link

34
Which of the following wireless standards increased transmission capabilities to 11 Mbps?
802.11a
x 802.11b
802.11c
802.11d

35
Which of the following does 1000BASE-T use to accomplish gigabit speeds on Cat 5e cable?
the use of four conductors in full-duplex mode
the use of two multiplexed pairs of wires, simultaneously
the use of three pairs of wires for data and the fourth for stabilization and forward error correction
x the use of all four pairs of wires in full-duplex mode, simultaneously

36
To make sure timing limitations are not violated when implementing a 10 Mbps Ethernet network involving hubs or repeaters, a technician should adhere to which rule?
the 4-5-3 rule
the 6-4-2 rule
the 3-4-5 rule
x the 5-4-3 rule

37
"CompA" is trying to locate a new computer named "CompB" on the network. Which of the following does "CompA" broadcast to find the MAC address of "CompB"?
MAC request
x ARP request
ping
Telnet
proxy ARP

38
What is the maximum distance that 10BASE-T will transmit data before signal attenuation affects the data delivery?
x 100 meters
185 meters
300 meters
500 meters

39
What is established during a connection-oriented file transfer between computers? (Choose two.)
x a temporary connection to establish authentication of hosts
a connection used for ASCII or binary mode data transfer
a connection used to provide the tunnel through which file headers are transported
a command connection which allows the transfer of multiple commands directly to the remote server system
x a control connection between the client and server

40
During cable testing, which of the following are used to calculate the information carrying capacity of a data cable? (Choose two.)
bit speed
x attenuation
wire map
saturation limit
x analog bandwidth

41
How is a MAC address represented?
four groups of eight binary digits separated by a decimal point
four Base10 digits separated by a decimal point
x six hexadecimal digits
twelve hexadecimal digits
twenty-four Base10 digits

42
A company with a Class B license needs to have a minimum of 1,000 subnets with each subnet capable of accommodating 50 hosts. Which mask below is the appropriate one?
255.255.0.0
255.255.240.0
255.255.255.0
x 255.255.255.192
255.255.255.224

43
What does the "10" in 10Base2 indicate about this version of Ethernet?
The version uses Base10 numbering within the frames.
x The version operates at a transmission rate of 10 Mbps.
Frames can travel 10 meters unrepeated.
The maximum frame length is 10 octets.

44
Which of the following is the Layer 4 PDU?
bit
frame
packet
x segment

45
A small company has a class C network license and needs to create five usable subnets, each subnet capable of accommodating at least 20 hosts. Which of the following is the appropriate subnet mask?
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.192
x 255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240
46
Which of the following items are common to all 100BASE technologies? (Choose three.)
x frame format
media
connectors
x timing
x multi-part encoding

47
In a new network installation, the network administrator has decided to use a medium that is not affected by electrical noise. Which cable type will best meet this standard?
coaxial
screened twisted pair
shielded twisted pair
unshielded twisted pair
x fiber optic

48
Convert the binary number 10111010 into its hexadecimal equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.
85
90
x BA
A1
B3
1C

49
Using the IP address 38.159.163.37 with a subnet mask 255.255.255.240, determine the subnetwork address.
38.159.0.0
38.159.163.0
38.159.163.0
38.159.163.16
x 38.159.163.32
38.159.163.36

50
Which of the following correctly describe AC and DC currents? (Choose three.)
x DC always flows in the same direction, and DC voltages always have the same polarity.
x In DC systems, the flow of electrons is always from a negatively charged source to a positively charged source.
In AC systems, electrons flow from negative to positive and then from positive to negative.
Power lines carry electricity in the form of DC because it can be delivered efficiently over large distances.
x AC voltage reverses its polarity, so that the positive terminal becomes negative, and the negative terminal becomes positive.
For AC and DC electrical systems, the flow of electrons is always from a positively charged source to a negatively charged source.

51
Select the necessary information that is required to compute the estimated time it would take to transfer data from one location to another. (Choose two.)
x file size
data format
network in use
type of medium
x bandwidth of the link

52
Which of these workstation installation and setup tasks are concerned with network access layer functions? (Choose two.)
configuring the e-mail client
x installing NIC drivers
configuring IP network settings
x connecting the network cable
using FTP to download application software updates

53
Using the data transfer calculation T=S/BW, how long would it take a 4MB file to be sent over a 1.5Mbps connection?
52.2 seconds
x 21.3 seconds
6.4 seconds
2 seconds
0.075 seconds
0.0375 seconds

54
An ISDN Basic Rate Interface (BRI) is composed of how many signaling channels?
1
x 2
3
4

Assessment #6:

1 Which of the following is included in the frame address field? (Choose two.)

source IP address

destination IP address

destination subnet mask

source MAC address

destination MAC address


2
Which of the following are sublayers of the OSI data link layer? (Choose two.)

Logical Link Control

Logical Layer Control

Media Access Control

Logical Link Communication

Media Access Communication

Physical Access Communication


3 A network administrator, while analyzing the network, notices a large number of "runts". What is significant about this? (Choose two.)

A server with high network priority is receiving significant use, overriding normal packet delivery.

A significant number of collisions are occurring, leaving collision fragments.

Corrupt data has been split into small packets allowing the network to function more smoothly.

The network is operating smoothly allowing data to be sent in smaller increments.

Throughput on the network is significantly reduced due to excessive collisions.


4
What are the possible reasons the MAC layer would be unable to send a frame in sixteen attempts? (Choose two.)

The destination is more than 16 hops away and unreachable.

A physical problem exists on the network.

The destination never received a token and therefore could not return verification of the CRC.

The network administrator assigned the wrong MAC address to the device.

The network is experiencing extremely heavy traffic loads.

The physical layer has not yet reached a state of convergence.


5 What is the length of a MAC address?

8 bits

8 bytes

24 bits

24 bytes

48 bits

48 bytes


6 Which statements correctly describe slot time? (Choose two.)

the time period just longer than the longest possible round trip when all options are at their maximum

the time required to send an entire frame through the outgoing port

the minimum spacing between two non-colliding frames

undefined on 10 Gigabit Ethernet


7 Which characteristics of Ethernet contribute to its widespread use? (Choose three.)

ease of maintenance

collision free technology

scalability

low cost of installation

compatibility with 802.5 standard

collision avoidance capabilities


8 How is a MAC address represented?

four groups of eight binary digits separated by a decimal point

four Base10 digits separated by a decimal point

six hexadecimal digits

twelve hexadecimal digits

twenty-four Base10 digits


9 How are collisions detected on an Ethernet network?

Stations identify the altered FCS field on the colliding packets.

The signal amplitude on the networking media increases.

There is blockage on the network causing no traffic to be detected.

The signal amplitude on the networking media decreases.


10 Where does the MAC address originate?

DHCP server database

configured by the administrator

burned into ROM on the NIC card

network configuration on the computer

included in the creation of the processor chip


11 Ethernet standard specifications limit network service interruption. Select the items that describe the standards. (Choose three.)

minimum segment length

maximum segment length

minimum number of stations per segment

maximum number of stations per segment

minimum number of repeaters between segments

maximum number of repeaters between segments


12 Which statements below are true about Ethernet? (Choose three.)

addresses the needs of Layer 2 and Layer 3 of the OSI model

first released as a Xerox proprietary standard

essentially the same as 802.3 standards

bandwidth can be increased without changing the underlying technology

essentially the same as 802.2 standards

original idea developed at the University of Hawaii


13 Why is Ethernet considered very scalable?

The NIC cards do not need to be changed to increase the bandwidth of the network.

Bandwidth can be increased without changing the underlying technology.

Ethernet standards do not need to change as new technologies are introduced.

Ethernet changes the packet as necessary to move from one link to another.


14 Which features describe the Token Ring topology? (Choose two.)

collisionless environment.

non-deterministic.

deterministic

uses CSMA/CD

prone to collisions


15 Why is half-duplex mode not permitted on 10 Gigabit Ethernet?

It was removed from the Ethernet standards as outdated technology.

Transmission is completed before the sending station can be made aware of any collisions.

Full-duplex transmission is needed in order to reach 10 Gigabit speeds.

Full-duplex stations transmit too quickly, blocking half-duplex stations from sending data.


16 What is indicated when the length/type frame field value is greater than 0x600?

DIX formatted frame header

Ethernet II code used to interpret the frame

length of frame is 600 bits

half duplex transmission being utilized


17 What does the letter "T" indicate in 10BaseT?

fiber optic cable

copper unshielded twisted pair

thicknet coaxial cable

thinnet coaxial cable


18 Select the statements that correctly describe the Length and Type Ethernet frame fields. (Choose three.)

Both fields, Length and Type, exist in all versions of Ethernet frames.

DIX versions of Ethernet use the field Type.

Early IEEE Ethernet versions used a combined Length/Type field.

Early IEEE Ethernet versions used the field Length.

Later IEEE Ethernet versions use a combined Length/Type field.

Later IEEE Ethernet versions use separate Length and Type fields.


19 What happens on an Ethernet network after a collision occurs? (Choose three.)

A backoff algorithm is invoked and transmission is stopped.

Devices involved in the collision have a random period of time for priority retransmission of the damaged packet.

The devices involved in the collision release a token indicating the time each station may begin retransmitting.

The devices involved in the collision do not have priority to transmit data.

The devices with data to transmit return to a listen-before-transmit mode.

Transmit work will restart with the reissuance of all data.


20 What does the "10" in 10Base2 indicate about this version of Ethernet?

The version uses Base10 numbering within the frames.

The version operates at a transmission rate of 10 Mbps.

Frames can travel 10 meters unrepeated.

The maximum frame length is 10 octets.


21 Which of the following would indicate the beginning of the frame?

flag bit

start of frame

frame check sequence

address field


22 Which of the following are the functions of CSMA/CD? (Choose three.)

transmitting and receiving data packets

releasing a token when the network is clear

detecting errors within data packets or on the network

passing a token to each station on the network

decoding data packets and checking them for valid addresses before passing them to the upper layers of the OSI model


23 Which options below are field names of a generic frame? (Choose three.)

IP header

voltage reference

data

description

length

frame check sequence


24 What does the word "Base" indicate in 10Base2?

The number standard used.

Baseband signaling is used.

Only a portion of the transmission medium is used.

Broadband signaling is used.


25 Which Ethernet data link layer frame comparison is correct?

higher speed networks require more fields be included in the frame

the faster speed frame structures are incompatible with the slower speed networks

the frame structure changes with each higher speed, however, they are compatible with slower speeds

all speeds of Ethernet have nearly identical frame structures


Assessment #7: (answers provided--Grade=100%)

1
What is the maximum distance that 10BASE-T will transmit data before signal attenuation affects the data delivery?
x 100 meters
185 meters
300 meters
500 meters



2
Which of the following were considered advantages of 10BASE5 networks? (Choose two.)
0
easy to install
0
easy to find hardware
0x
inexpensive
0x
no configuration



3
Which media types can be used in an implementation of a 10BASE-T network? (Choose three.)
0x
Category 5 UTP
0x
Category 5e UTP
0x
Category 3 UTP
0
coaxial cable
0
multi-mode fiber
0
single mode fiber



4
For a network manager planning the installation of a new network, which of the following will be needed to implement a typical 10BASE-T network installation? (Choose three.)
0
RJ-11
0
BNC connectors
0
RJ-48 patch cables
0x
RJ-45 connectors
0x
Category 5 UTP cables
0x
hubs or switches



5
Which of the following Ethernet technologies are considered legacy Ethernet? (Choose three.)
0x
10BASE2
0x
10BASE5
0x
10BASE-T
0
100BASE-T
0
100BASE-FX
0
100BASE-TX



6
Which of the following is the line encoding conversion used by 1000BASE-X?
SRS
PCM
NZS
B8ZS
x NRZ
ASCII



7
Which of the following Ethernet technologies share the same timing parameters? (Choose three.)
0x
10BASE2
0x
10BASE5
0x
10BASE-T
0
100BASE-TX
0
100BASE-FX
0
100BASE-RX



8
Which class of repeater changes between one Ethernet implementation and another?
x Class I
Class II
Class III
Class IV
Class V



9
Which of the following are Fast Ethernet technologies? (Choose two.)
0
100BASE-5
0
100BASE2
0
1000BASE-F
0x
100BASE-FX
0x
100BASE-TX



10
Which of the following is the maximum distance that 10BASE2 will transmit data before signal degration?
100 meters
x 185 meters
200 meters
500 meters



11
Which of the following describe the Gigabit Ethernet bit patterns created at the physical layer?
pulses
triads
frames
x symbols
icons



12
Why would an organization choose to implement twisted pair cabling over coaxial cabling? (Choose two.)
0x
cheaper
0x
easier to install
0
proprietary
0
used in most older networks
0
easy to make wiring errors
0
no limitations to the length of each segment



13
What does the "S" in 1000BASE-SX mean?
short range fiber
x short wavelength light source
shielded twisted pair
shielded fiber cladding
single-mode fiber



14
Which of the following best describes how the Gigabit Ethernet, Media Access Control method views the link?
ring
shared bus
x point-to-point
star
extended star



15
What is the maximum distance that 10BASE5 will transmit data before signal degration?
185 meters
200 meters
x 500 meters
550 meters





16
Which of the following are true when comparing 10BASE2 and 10BASE5? (Choose three.)
0
10BASE2 supports faster data rates than 10BASE5.
0
10BASE2 has longer allowable cable lengths.
0
x10BASE2 cable is more flexible than 10BASE5 cable.
0
x10BASE5 cable is heavier than 10BASE2 cable.
0
x10BASE5 and 10BASE2 networks operate in half-duplex mode.
0
10BASE5 and 10BASE2 networks have central hubs to control traffic networks.



17
To make sure timing limitations are not violated when implementing a 10 Mbps Ethernet network involving hubs or repeaters, a technician should adhere to which rule?
the 4-5-3 rule
the 6-4-2 rule
the 3-4-5 rule
x the 5-4-3 rule



18
Which of the following common networking problems is eliminated when an Ethernet network uses separate transmit and receive wire pairs and a switched topology?
x collisions on the physical bus
single segment distance limitations
the maximum bandwidth available on CAT 3 wiring
Multi-port bridge replication errors
CSCD/MA maximum repeater rules



19
What is the most important aspect to consider when designing a 10BASE-T architecture?
specifying the correct category of cable in the design
minimizing the number of switches in the design
maximizing the use of hubs
x minimizing the delay between distant stations



20
Which of the following has limited the bandwidth of fiber based Ethernet? (Choose three.)
0x
emitter technology
0
absolute fiber light-carrying capacities
0
theoretical limits of fiber capacity
0x
fiber manufacturing processes
0x
detector technology
0
angles and curves in the fiber run


Assessment #8:

1 Which of the following devices performs the task of viewing and forwarding frames based on MAC addresses? (Choose two.)

hub

router

bridge

switch

transceiver

ATM


2
A network administrator has a multi-floor LAN to monitor and maintain. Through careful monitoring, the administrator has noticed a large amount of broadcast traffic slowing the network. Which device would you use to best solve this problem?

bridge

hub

router

transceiver


3 What impact does a bridge have on a network? (Choose two.)

reduces collision domains

increases number of collision domains

adds additional broadcast domains

has no impact on broadcast domains

breaks collision domains into equal parts


4
What is the area referred to as, that controls frame propagation within that area?

MAC address domain

collision domain

broadcast domain

propagation domain


5 Which switching mode describes a switch that transfers a frame as soon as the destination MAC address is read?

fragment-free

cut-through

store-and-forward

latency forwarding


6 What does a switch broadcast to let other switches know of its existence on the LAN?

STP

STA

BDPU

BPU

BPDU


7 Which LAN switching methods have a fixed latency time? (Choose two.)

store-and-forward

cut-through

fast-forward

free-forward

cut-and-store

fragment-free


8 Which of the following describes shared media environment?

a collision free environment made up of systems on the same medium

multiple hosts have access to the same cable ISP system

multiple hosts have access to the same medium.

multiple router environment in a mesh topology


9 Which switching mode has the lowest latency?

cut-through

fast-forward

store-and-forward

fragment-free


10 Which of the following is a term associated with replacing hubs with switches to increase the number of collision domains?

encapsulation

latency

segmentation

layered model

broadcast domain

extended



11 Which of the following is the switching technique that reads the header and passes the frame prior to the checksum being sent?

fragment-free

cut-through

store-and-forward

latency forwarding

fast forward


12 Which of the following is created with switched full-duplex transmission?

more collision domains

fewer collision domains

no collision domains

no increase in broadcast domains

more broadcast domains


13 Which of the following network types uses networking devices to extend the distances that cable can be run?

length/shared media

extended shared media

point-to-point network

extended point-to-point network

multiple access/point-to-point


14 Which of the following would alleviate the problem of excessive collisions in a LAN? (Choose two.)

reduce the size of collision domains

reduce number of broadcast domains

add extra hubs

add extra managed switches

add additional transceivers

increase the length of UTP cable runs


15 Which device uses full-duplex mode to provide full bandwidth between two nodes on a network?

hub

router

switch

gateway

repeater

transceiver


16 What is a disadvantage of cut-through switching?

no error checking

a decrease in error checking

decrease in number of collision domains

decrease in bandwidth

increased latency


17 Which of the following protocols is used to eliminate loops?

STP

BDPU

UDP

EIGRP

learning


18 Which switching mode has the highest latency?

fast-forward

store-and-forward

fragment-free

cut-through


19 Which of the following does a router use to make a forwarding decision?

destination IP address

MAC address

source IP address

encapsulation address

default gateway


20 While working on her computer, Mary noticed longer than normal network data transfers. Mary investigates the problem and notices that her co-worker John has been hosting an online video conference. What is the network probably experiencing?

collision storm

broadcast storm

IP storm

data rain storm


Assessment #9:

1 What steps must occur for devices to communicate between different physical network segments? (Choose two.)

learning the IP address of the source device

obtaining the MAC address of the intermediate device

transferring the data packets from one network segment to another to reach the destination host

obtaining the IP address of the local host


2
Which of the following are major advantages of DHCP over BOOTP? (Choose two.)

It allows user to be mobile.

It does not require fixed profiles to assign IP addresses.

It requires only three packet exchanges to obtain an IP address.

It uses a table of static IP addresses developed by the network system administrator.

It requires the IP address to be linked with the same MAC address.


3 Which items may be included in a BOOTP packet? (Choose two.)

the destination IP address of a WAN workstation

the address of a router

vendor-specific information

the routing protocol of the destination network


4
What should a system administrator consider when assigning an IP address to a network server? (Choose two.)

Servers should have addresses assigned dynamically through a DHCP.

Servers with a dynamically assigned IP address would be difficult to locate on a network.

Servers with periodically changed IP addresses have little effect on a network.

Servers should have IP addresses assigned statically by a network system administrator.


5 Several solutions have been developed to expand the number of IP addresses available for public use. Which technologies are solutions? (Choose three.)

DHCP

classless interdomain routing

a new 64 bit addressing scheme

Network Address Translation

IPv6

IPv5


6 Which criteria identify a Class B address? (Choose two.)

decimal number in first octet between 127-191

decimal number in first octect between 128-192

decimal number in first octect between 128-191

first bit of binary IP address is 0

first two bits of binary IP address are 10

first three bits of IP binary address are 110


7

In the network shown in the accompanying graphic, where would it be appropriate to use private addressing ?

only area a

only area b

only area c

areas a and b

areas a and c

areas a and b and c


8 In what ways are the TCP/IP and OSI models the same? (Choose three.)

Both have an application layer.

Both have a physical layer.

Both assume circuit-switched networks.

Both have network access and data-link layers.

Both have similar transport and network layers.

Both assume packet-switched networks.


9 Within a company's TCP/IP network, failure to access e-mail on a remote server has been diagnosed as a network access problem. Which of the following could be the cause? (Choose two.)

DNS

PPP

ATM

TCP

SMTP

Ethernet


10 Which operations are performed by IP? (Choose three.)

routing packets to remote hosts

providing a physical addressing scheme

defining frames

defining packets

transferring data between the internet layer and the network access layer

transferring data between the internet layer and the application layer


11 Name the protocols that operate at the transport layer of the TCP/IP model. (Choose two.)

TCP

IP

UDP

FTP

NDS

IPX


12 Which of the following are TCP services? (Choose three.)

address resolution

end-to-end communication

flow control

reliability of data delivery

path determination

data representation


13 Which functions are handled by the TCP/IP application layer? (Choose three.)

logical addressing

encoding

logical topology

route selection

dialog control

data presentation


14 What version of IP was developed as IPng, and what year was it introduced by IETF? (Choose two.)

IPv4

IPv6

IPv8

1981

1992

2002


15 Which OSI layers relate to the network access layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose two.)

transport

physical

session

network

data link

application


16 Which network device table contains the IP and MAC address of other devices on the same LAN?

DHCP

RARP

ARP

DNS


17 What is the function of the Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP) on a local area network?

RARP binds a known IP address to an unknown MAC address.

RARP reports the MAC address of a website to the ARP table of the workstation.

RARP seeks out diskless workstations to assign a physical address to the network interface cards of the workstations.

RARP binds a known MAC address to an IP unknown address.


18 How do some computer operating systems prevent duplicate IP addresses on a local area network?

They are able to allow duplicate IP addresses on a single LAN segment.

The network DNS server reconciles IP address duplication.

They send ARP requests throughout a local area network.

They use UDP packets to bypass IP addresses.


19 Which model would a networking professional use to better understand the data communication process?

OSI model

IEEE model

ANSI model

Internetworking model


20 Which TCP/IP model layer supports both LAN and WAN technologies?

network access layer

internet layer

transport layer

application layer


21 Which layer is considered to be the host-to-network layer of the TCP/IP model?

application

presentation

transport

network access

data link

internet


22 Which of the following would be a function of ICMP?

It provides control and messaging capabilities.

It provides address resolution services.

It supports e-mail functionality.

It enables file transfer between hosts.

It allows remote login to distant hosts.


23 Which TCP/IP layer provides services that support a logical connection between the sending and receiving hosts?

application

network

IP

transport

presentation

session


24 What organization developed the TCP/IP reference model?

Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF)

National Intstitute of Standards and Technology (NIST)

Department of the Navy (DoN)

Department of Defense (DoD)

Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT)

Stanford University


25 What does the sending device need to communicate with another local IP host?

the IP address of the nearest LAN server

the MAC address of the destination device

the IP address and MAC address of the destination device

the IP address of the next hop switch


Assessment #10 (some answers provided)

17/20 85%

1
Which of the following describes path determination at the network layer?
router compares available ARP table information to select the best path
router uses routed protocol to determine the best path for data transmission
router compares available routing table information to select the best path
x router uses a routing protocol to compare LAN equipment to route data through
switch compares available routing table information to select the best path

2
Which of the following are link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)
RIPv1
IGRP
x OSPF
x IS-IS
EIGRP
RIPv2

3
Which IP packet field will prevent endless loops?
type-of-service
identification
flags
x time-to-live
header checksum

4
Given a host with the IP address 172.32.65.13 and a default subnet mask, to which network does the host belong?
x 172.32.65.0
172.32.65.32
172.32.0.0
172.32.32.0

5
What do routers use to exchange topological information?
protocol styles
x routing protocols
MAC addresses
RARP addresses
network topologies

6
A small company has a class C network license and needs to create five usable subnets, each subnet capable of accommodating at least 20 hosts. Which of the following is the appropriate subnet mask?
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.192
x 255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240

7
Which of the following are considered parts of an IP packet header? (Choose three.)
x HLEN
MAC address
x Padding
x Flags
invalidate

8
Which processes occur each time a packet is switched from one router interface to another? (Choose two.)
x encapsulation
ARP
RARP
x de-encapsulation
circuit switching
FastForward switching

9
Which of the following are routing protocols? (Choose three.)
IP
x RIP
IPX
x IGRP
x EIGRP
AppleTalk

10
How many usable subnets are created by applying the subnet mask 255.255.255.0 to a Class B network?
256
255
x 254
512
511
510

11
Which of the following are benefits of subnetting? (Choose three.)
x smaller broadcast domains
larger collision domains
x low-level security provided
fewer broadcast domains
x increased address flexibility
larger broadcast domains

12
Which of the following are routed protocols? (Choose three.)
x IP
BGP
x XNS
RIP
OSPF
x DECnet

13
Which statement is true regarding the process of subnetting?
Network bits are reassigned as host bits.
Subnet bits are reassigned as network bits.
x Host bits are reassigned as network bits.
Network bits are reassigned as subnet bits.
Host bits are reassigned as subnet bits.

14
Which of the following is the address that is changed when a frame is received at a router interface?
IP address
IPX address
MAC address
x Port address

15
How many bits are available for Class B host IP addresses using the default subnet mask?
1
4
8
14
x 16
24
16
Which two statements are accurate about subnet addressing? (Choose two.)
Host bits are all equal to 1 in the network address.
x Host bits of the network address are all equal to 0.
Network address host bits are equal in value to the value of the fourth octet of the subnet mask.
x Host bits of the broadcast address are all equal to 1.
Host bits of the broadcast address are all equal to 0.
Host bits of the broadcast address are equal in value to the value of the fourth octet of the subnet mask.

17
Which of the following are metrics used with routing protocols? (Choose three.)
algorithm
x delay
convergence
x cost
x reliability
optimization

18
Which process do routers use to determine the subnet network address based upon a given IP address and subnet mask?
binary adding
hexadecimal anding
binary division
binary multiplication
x binary ANDing

19
Which of the following determine link-state advertisements? (Choose two.)
timed update
x topology changes
packet triggered updates
x link-state refresh packets
database changes

20
Which of the following OSI layers offers reliable, connection-oriented data communication services?
session
x transport
network
data link

Assessment #1:

1 Which of the following are popular web browsers? (Choose two.)

Acrobat

Internet Explorer

Macromedia Flash

Netscape Navigator

Quicktime

World Wide Web


2 Which of the following interprets the data and displays the information in an understandable form for the user to see?

application

protocol stack

remote devices

logical connection

physical connection


3X

The corporate user at 210.98.105.70 is having problems communicating with the remote PC at 192.5.5.25. The computers internal loopback has been tested successfully. Which of the following commands could be next in the troubleshooting process? (Choose three.)

ping 129.0.0.1

ping 127.0.0.1

ping 192.5.5.1

ping 192.5.5.25

ping 210.98.105.1

ping 210.98.106.70


4 Which of the following are considered to be "always on" services? (Choose two.)

DSL

ISDN

56kbps

cable modem


5 What is the numeric base of hexadecimal numbers?

Base 2

Base 8

Base 10

Base 16

Base 32


6C Convert the hexadecimal number 19 into its base 10 equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.

19

91

52

25

36

63


7C Convert the decimal number 227 into its binary equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.

11100101

11100001

11100110

11001101

11100011

11100010


8C Convert the hexadecimal number CD into its base 10 equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.

197

199

201

203

205

207


9 Which of the following are high speed digital connections available to the local consumer? (Choose two.)

56kbps modem

DSL

T1

cable modem

ISDN


10 Which of the following will test the internal loopback of a node?

ping 10.10.10.1

ping 192.168.1.1

ping 127.0.0.1

ping 223.223.223.223

ping 255.255.255.255


11C Convert the decimal number 231 into its binary equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.

11110010

11011011

11110110

11100111

11100101

11101110


12C Convert the hexadecimal number 52 into its base 10 equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.

25

52

28

82

A2

2A


13 Why were TCP/IP protocols developed?

To insure that error correction of each packet takes place.

To allow cooperating computers to share resources across a network.

To allocate resources that are needed for operating a computer on a LAN.

To determine the "best path" decision making when forwarding packets of data.


14 Connections to the Internet may use multiple protocols. Select the description that best defines a protocol.

a group of numbers

definitions of specific standards

explanations of procedures

wiring specification

a set of rules and conventions


15 Which specialized equipment is used to make a physical connection to a network from a PC? (Choose two.)

router

modem

CD Rom

ATM Switch

network interface card


16 In an 8 bit binary number, what is the total number of combinations of the eight bits?

128

254

255

256

512

1024


17X When purchasing a NIC for a computer, which of the following factors need to be considered? (Choose three.)

protocols

system bus

brand of PC

web browser

operating system

type of media use on the network


18 Which of the following are functions of a web browser without the addition of plug-ins? (Choose three.)

updates IRQ's

receives information

requests information

contacts web servers

displays flash animation

displays Quicktime movies


19 Which of the following are valid hexadecimal numbers? (Choose three.)

DEF3

1G45

1F35

DH3F

453

X35F


20 Which of the following describes a network interface card?

large circuit board that contains sockets for expansion cards

interface card capable of transferring more than one bit simultaneously and is used to connect external devices

expansion board inserted into a computer so that the computer can be connected to a network

interface card that can be used for parallel communication in which only 1 bit is transmitted at a time


21 Which statements best describe the Internet physical layer connection? (Choose two.)

connection using standard protocols

internet standard is TCP/IP

could utilize modem or NIC

interprets data and displays information

used to transfer data between PC and local network



Assessment #2:


1 Which of the following would be used by a network administrator to calculate an estimate of network performance? (Choose two.)

size of file

protocol overhead

line bandwidth

encapsulation rate

bit error rate


2
Which of the following types of networks pass a token sequentially to each host? (Choose two.)

Ethernet

Token Ring

FDDI

Frame Relay

ISDN


3 Which protocols are commonly part of the application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)

FTP

DNS

UDP

TCP

HTTP


4
What are the advantages of dividing the network into the seven layers of the OSI model? (Choose three.)

describes the entire network to facilitate learning about its parts

breaks down network communtication into manageable parts

allows for different types of hardware to communicate with each other

prevents changes in one layer from affecting other layers

allows for an uneven grouping of information to increase network speed

prevents the IOS from affecting the OSI


5 In a description of bandwidth that uses the analogy of a network of pipes bringing water to and from a house, which of the following represents bandwidth?

width of a pipe

length of a pipe

valves connecting to the pipe

the water running through a pipe.


6 A contracting company is planning to allow its subcontractors and suppliers access to its network resources. It desires the security of knowing that the general public and competitors will not be able to access the information. Which of the following technologies should the company implement?

Access VPN

Dial-up VPN

Extranet VPN

Intranet VPN

Secure VPN

Wide-Area VPN


7 Which of the following are considered WAN technologies? (Choose three)

DSL

Ethernet

FDDI

Frame Relay

Modem

Token Ring


8 Which of the following were disadvantages of electronic bulletin boards? (Choose 3.)

Simultaneous user connections to multiple computers were very fast.

Availablity was limited to those who knew the location.

They did not scale well to keep up with growing demand.

Users could not simultaneously share files.

Modem and telephone line requirements were demanding.


9 LANs were developed to solve which business needs? (Choose three.)

reduce duplication of equipment

promote the use of sneakernets

increase productivity while saving money

reduce the number of duplicate copies of files

connect users in different geographic locations

increase complexity of the work environment


10 Which of the following terms refers to end-user devices that provide users with a connection to the network?

hub

router

host

server


11 What reasons prompted the development of a standardized set of rules to define the networking technologies? (Choose two.)

Networks used different specifications and implementations to exchange information.

Networking technologies strictly following proprietary rules could communicate with technologies that followed different proprietary rules

Proprietary networking technology seldom presented problems in communication among different external networks.

Companies developed private or proprietary networking technologies

The Federal Government wanted a "level playing field" for all of the networking industry.


12 Which of the following are ways that bandwidth is commonly measured? (Choose three.)

GHzps

kbps

Mbps

Nbps

MHzps

Gbps


13 Which of the following is the Layer 4 PDU?

bit

frame

packet

segment


14 Which of the following are layers of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)

application

physical

internet

network

presentation


15 Which of the following physical topologies is used in situations where breaks in communications are unacceptable?

ring

star

mesh

bus


16 Which of the following are LAN design goals? (Choose three)

provide full-time connectivity to remote services

consolidate network devices and protocols to a single vendor

provide access to high-bandwidth media

operate within a limited geographic area

allow users to share files and printers

provide access to geographically separated networks


17 Which device is used to connect LANs that are geographically separated?

hub

bridge

router

repeater


18 Which of the following is the approximate amount of time it would take to transmit a 23.1 megabyte file on a T1 link?

fifteen seconds

fifteen million seconds

one hundred twenty seconds

one hundred twenty thousand seconds


19 What is important to remember about the data link layer of the OSI model when considering Peer to Peer communication? (Choose three.)

It links data to the transport layer.

It encapsulates frames into packets.

It provides a service to the network layer.

It encapsulates the network layer information into a frame.

Its header contains a physical address which is required to complete the data link functions.

It encodes the data link frame into a pattern of 1s and 0s (bits) for transmission on the medium.


20 Which of the following are data link layer encapsulation details? (Choose two.)

Packets are put into frames.

Data is packaged into a packet.

Data is segmented into segments.

Data is converted for Internet travel.

An address is added to identify the directly connected device.


21 Which of the following are typical features that determine throughput? (Choose two.)

types of passwords used on servers

type of Layer 3 protocol used

network topology

length of the network cable

number of users on the network


22 Which type of VPN uses analog, dialup, ISDN, DSL, mobile IP, or cable technologies to securely connect mobile users and telecommuters to branch office networks?

Access VPN

Intranet VPN

Extranet VPN

Shared VPN


23 Which of the following networks is a dedicated, high-performance network used to move data between servers and storage resources?

LAN

MAN

SAN

WAN


24 Which of the following is a transport layer protocol of the TCP/IP model?

FTP

UDP

IP

TFTP



Assessment #3:

1 Which of the following describe the ray model of light? (Choose three.)

Light bends at the boundary of two transparent materials.

The speed of light is greatest when passing through optical glass.

The speed of light is constant no matter what material passes through.

The optical density of the material determines how much the light will bend.

The index of refraction is the ratio of the speed of light in a material compared to a vacuum.


2 What is the minimum number of devices that can exist in a wireless network?

1

2

3

4


3 Which combinations of charges will be repelled by electric force? (Choose two.)

neutral and neutral

neutral and positive

neutral and negative

positive and positive

positive and negative

negative and negative


4 How is full-duplex capability achieved in fiber optic cable?

Two fibers are encased in separate sheaths.

Light is bounced at different rates in opposite directions.

Transmit speeds are so high that half-duplex is acceptable.

Colors of the light spectrum are separated into transmit and receive streams.


5 Which of the following are characteristics of fiber optic light receivers? (Choose two.)

react to multiple wavelengths

react to a specific wavelength

tuned to one wavelength for noise reduction

use PIN photodiodes to convert light pulses to electrical signals


6 Which devices could cause problems with a wireless transmission? (Choose two.)

radio

TV

microwave

wireless phone

DVD remote control


7 Which factors can lead to a loss of signal strength in fiber optic cable? (Select three.)

absorption

RFI

crosstalk

scattering

dispersion

EMI


8 Which effects comprise impedance? (Choose three.)

capacitance

voltage

current

resistance

inductance

power


9 Your company has a new wireless network setup in their building. The boss has heard the throughput for a wireless network would be 11 Mbps. You mention that because of the way WLANs transmit and acknowledge data the actual percentage of throughput would be which of the following?

25%

40%

50%

70%


10 Which of the following are attributes of singlemode fiber optic cable? (Choose two.)

one path of light

larger fiber optic core

uses LEDs as a light source

distances up to 5000 meters

higher bandwidth than multimode


11 Which of the following characteristics describe STP cable? (Choose three.)

costs more than UTP

easier to install than UTP

uses the shield to carry data signals

twisted pairs are not required because of the shield

must be grounded at both ends for high frequency signals

reduces both internal and external sources of interference




12
Which of the following radio carrier signal modulation types will modulate the height (amplitude) of the carrier signal?

AM

FM

PM

RF


13 Which of the following identifies a node that has been authenticated but not yet associated with the access point?

unauthenticated and unassociated

unauthenticated and associated

authenticated and unassociated

authenticated and associated


14 Select the characteristics specified by 10BaseT. (Choose three.)

twisted pair cable

T style connectors

baseband transmission

10 gigabits per second data rate

10 megabits per second data rate

decimal encoded data transmission


15 Which of the following must be present for current to flow? (Choose three.)

closed loop

resistance

insulating material

source of voltage

conducting material

bit generating device


16 What is the core size of a single mode fiber-optic cable?

8-10 microns

15 microns

50-60 microns

125 microns


17 Which term refers to the amount of signal power loss that can be tolerated on a fiber optic link?

linear laser light loss

optical link loss budget

acceptable decibel power reduction

maximum allowable light attenuation


18 Which of the following are typical specifications for data transmission cables? (Choose three.)

achievable bit transmission speeds

supported data encoding schemes

minimum distance between hosts

maximum distance before fatal attenuation

intended transmission type

intended bit level protocols type


19 Which tasks must be performed when installing fiber optic cable? (Choose three.)

install connectors

inspect laser signal using a microscope

cleave and polish cable ends

wash cable ends with mild soap and water

protect connector ends from dirt and damage

pull cables tight to reduce the number of bends and twists


20 Which of the following wireless standards increased transmission capabilities to 11 Mbps?

802.11a

802.11b

802.11c

802.11d


21 Which two are necessary to achieve total internal reflection within a fiber-optic cable? (Choose two.)

The entire incident light ray must be refracted into the cladding.

The index of refraction of the core must be less than that of the cladding.

The index of refraction of the core must be greater than that of the cladding.

The optical density of the reflecting material must be higher than the refracting index.

The angle of incidence of the light ray must be greater than the critical angle for the core and cladding.


22 Which of the following are benefits of coaxial cable within a LAN environment? (Choose two.)

easier to install than UTP

less expensive than fiber

requires fewer repeaters than UTP

easily accommodates additions to network

faster transport speeds than fiber


Assessment #4:

1 What conditions are described when transmission signals from one wire pair affects another wire pair? (Choose two.)

noise

resistance mismatch

jitter

crosstalk

attenuation


2 What problems are associated with impedance mismatches in copper cabling? (Choose two.)

jitter

signal absorption

termination of signals

reflection

NEXT


3 Which of the following correctly matches the definitions of analog and digital bandwidth? (Choose two.)

Analog bandwidth refers to frequency range.

Analog bandwidth is a measurement of the amount of frequency sent.

Digital bandwidth refers to the range of a frequency.

Digital bandwidth measures speed of the transmission.

Analog bandwidth is a measurement of how much information can flow.


4 Which of the following units of measure are commonly used in formulas for calculating the amount of gain or loss in networking signals? (Choose three.)

watts

ohms

volts

decibels

joules

amperes


5 Which of the following are tests specified by the TIA/EIA-568-B standard for copper cable? (Choose three.)

signal harmonics

conductive response

wire map

signal absorption

insertion loss

propagation delay


6 Which of the following is another name for the decimal number system?

Base 2

Base 5

Base 10

Base 16


7 For what purpose are two y-axis inputs used when displaying voltage patterns on an oscilloscope?

to insure a clean signal is obtained

to determine if one is primary and one is backup

to display multiple time frames

to analyze a complex spectrum

to observe and measure two waves simultaneously


8 Why would fiber optic installations be favored over copper between buildings? (Choose two.)

cheaper installation

larger media

attentuation properties

no electrical interference

easier termination and installation


9 Which features of fiber optic cabling prevent the problem of crosstalk? (Choose two.)

the absence of electrical signals

more twists per inch than copper

better termination standards

the cancellation effect

no generation of electromagnetic waves


10 Identify common ways in which the capacities of communication systems are measured? (Choose two.)

analog bandwidth

resistance capacity

carrier bandwidth

polarity capacity

digital bandwidth


11 Which of the following describe sine waves? (Choose three.)

They do not continuously vary with time.

They repeat the same pattern at regular intervals.

They occur naturally and change regularly over time.

They are artificially created and do not occur naturally.

No two adjacent points on a graph have the same value.

They have continuously varying patterns that do not repeat.


12 What is the purpose of shielding in copper based media? (Choose three.)

protect one pair of wires within the cable from noise generated by electrical signals on another pair of wires

ground the cable and prevent electrical shocks

protect the data signal from external sources of noise

eliminate signal loss by keeping the transmitted signal confined to the cable

decrease attenuation and increase the length possible for the cable run

ground the cable so that the zero volt reference point is accurate




13 In a new network installation, the network administrator has decided to use a medium that is not affected by electrical noise. Which cable type will best meet this standard?

coaxial

screened twisted pair

shielded twisted pair

unshielded twisted pair

fiber optic


14 Which of the following are possible sources of line noise? (Choose three.)

radio transmitters

electrical motors

crosstalk

laser light

incandescent light


15 How are binary ones and zeros represented in fiber optic installations? (Choose two.)

+5 volts/-5 volts

0 volts/5 volts

light/no light

high to low electrical transition

low to high electrical transition

increasing/decreasing light intensity


16 What type of analysis is performed by using an oscilloscope?

power-domain

frequency-domain

time-domain

wave-domain

spectrum-domain

signal-domain


17 How does noise impact a data signal in a communication system?

It replaces the data signal.

It blocks the data signal.

It is added to the data signal.

It creates a harmonic signal.


18 What type of shielding does data coaxial cable use? (Choose two.)

insulating material

lexan infused

braided conductive

foil-screened

rubber molding


19
What type of wiring problem is depicted in this sample of a cable tester?

a fault

a short

an open

a split

a good map


20 For which type of waves would the signal gain or loss be calculated using the power formula? (Choose two.)

electromagnetic waves on copper cables

electrical waves on copper cables

light waves on optical fiber

radio waves in the air

sound waves in the air


21 Which of the following describes frequency?

length of each wave

height of each wave

number of cycles each second

amount of time between each wave


22 What are some of the factors that contribute to attenuation in a copper media? (Choose three.)

type of voltage used

long cable lengths

jitter signal sent by the transmitting device

defective connectors

energy leaks through the insulation of the cable

low signal frequencies


23 Which of the following is another name for the binary number system?

Base 2

Base 5

Base 10

Base 16




24 What are pulses and why are they important in digital communication? (Choose two.)

irregular accidental spikes in energy levels

determine the value of the data being transmitted

create the timing mechanism for data transmission

increases in energy which damage data transmissions

deliberate, fixed disturbances of predictable duration


25 Which of the following are true about square waves? (Choose three.)

They repeat the same pattern at regular intervals.

They continuously vary with time.

They repeat the flat pattern on both the top and bottom of the wave.

They do not continuously vary with time.

They occur naturally and change regularly over time.

They change intervals based upon voltage.


Assessment #5:

1 What are the two basic functions of a switch? (Choose two.)

switching data frames

cost effective operation

switching Layer 3 traffic

build and maintain tables

isolating packets on the LAN


2
Which of the following are benefits of peer-to-peer networks? (Choose three.)

centralized security

easy to create

very scalable

no centralized equipment required

centralized administrator not required

centralized control of assets


3 What are the reasons for the Four Repeater Rule of 10 Mbps Ethernet? (Choose two.)

to reduce total attenuation

to prevent microsegmentation

to prevent late collisions

to prevent bit slippage

to limit latency


4
Which of the following are other names for a hub? (Choose two.)

concentrator

transceiver

switch

bridge

multiport repeater

active host


5 In which of the following situations would a straight-through cable be used? (Choose three.)

router to router

router to PC

router to switch

PC to hub

switch to hub

switch to PC


6 Which of the following companies are responsible for creating and implementing the first Ethernet LAN specifications? (Choose three.)

Intel

Cisco

Digital

Xerox

Microsoft

Hewlett Packard


7 Which of the following is the connector used at the point where data delivery is the responsibility of the service provider?

DTE

DCE

POP

Demarc


8 What are advantages of client/server networks? (Choose three.)

centralized security

single point of failure

centralized backups

lower operating costs

enhanced network services

users control their own resources


9 What is the recommended maximum number of workstations configured on a peer-to-peer network?

25

15

10

5

2


10 An ISDN BRI connection is composed of how many bearer channels?

1

2

3

4


11 What type of network cable is used between a terminal and a console port?

cross-over

straight-through

rollover

patch cable


12 What are the benefits of replacing a hub with a switch? (Choose three.)

reduces network congestion

consolidates segments

contains broadcasts

maximizes bandwidth

increases collision domain size

reduces collision domain size


13 Which of the following are benefits of installing switches in place of hubs and repeaters? (Choose three.)

reduces traffic

microsegmentation

improves application support

total cost of ownership is greater

creates more but smaller collision domains

creates more but smaller broadcast domains


14 Which of the following are benefits of wireless networks when compared to wired networks? (Choose two.)

higher data speeds

better security

mobility

less expensive NIC cards

no need to run cables to hosts

no transceivers required


15 Which of the following ports is used to initially configure a Cisco router?

BRI port

Aux port

Console port

Ethernet port


16

From the diagram above, we see that Host B is connected directly to a network device. What does that network device use to make forwarding decisions?

Layer 2 network addresses

Layer 2 physical addresses

Layer 3 network addresses

Layer 3 physical addresses


17 Company A needs to decide whether copper or fiber cable will be used in a new installation. What are some of the advantage and disadvantage comparisons that need to be made? (Choose three.)

cost

cable length

application type

information flow

number of drops

ease of installation


18 Which port on a router is used with a modem to make configuration changes?

Console

Aux

BRI

Ethernet


19 Which protocol is typically used to carry data over an ISDN B channel?

PPP

SLIP

PAP

Frame Relay


20 Which of the following are hub types? (Choose three.)

LAN

core

active

passive

intelligent

convergent


21 Which layer of the OSI model covers physical media?

Layer 1

Layer 2

Layer 3

Layer 4

Layer 5

Layer 6


22 In which of the following situations would a crossover cable be used? (Choose two.)

switch to router

switch to PC

router to PC

switch to hub

hub to router